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  • He is Risen – 2.2: Why name it Mark?

    Feb 16th, 2025

    …because the author’s name was Mark

    The earliest manuscripts of this Gospel are titled ‘According to Mark’ – which summarizes the uniform Church tradition that Mark, a disciple of Simon Peter, wrote the second Gospel. Mark was not an eyewitness of Christ’s public ministry he was a channel of apostolic tradition through Peter.

    In the New Testament, Peter refers to his companionship with Mark in an amicable manner ‘my son Mark’ in 1 Peter 5:13. Further, interpreters have noted that the general outline of Mark’s gospel is similar to Peter’s presentation of the gospel in Acts 10:36-43. Outside the New Testament, multiple Church Fathers insist that Peter’s authority lies behind this Gospel. Papias (A.D. 130) describes Mark as the “interpreter” of Peter, while Irenaeus (A.D. 180), Clement of Alexandria (A.D. 200) and Tertullian (A.D. 200) echo this tradition.

    Few details exist about the life and character of Mark. He is known by his Roman name “Mark” (Marcus in latin), but is sometimes called by his Jewish name “John” (Acts 12:25; 15:37). He is the cousin of the missionary Barnabas according to Colossians 4:10, and he was also an associate of the Apostle Paul (Acts 12:25) and a welcome companion on Paul’s first missionary journey (Acts 13:5). According to Paul’s estimation “he [Mark] is very useful in serving me” (2 Timothy 4:11), and Tradition states that after the martyrdom of Peter and Paul, Mark was the first to establish churches in Alexandria and northern Egypt.

    These factors held together, especially with the unanimity of voices attributing this gospel make it difficult to contend that some ‘mysterious author’ penned this Gospel.

    He was probably the first one to start writing too

    Two main factors suggest that Mark completed his Gospel before A.D. 70 – within one generation of the events he records.

    1. First, the Gospel itself points us in this direction. In Mark 13, Jesus prophesies the imminent destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple. This was fulfilled in A.D. 70, when the Romans violently destroyed the Holy City. Mark, however, makes no mention of this as a past event, nor does he give detailed information about the catastrophe that would indicate he was writing after the fact.
    2. Second, prominent traditions in the early Church date Mark’s gospel in the 60s or even earlier. Both a second-century document, called the Anti-Marcionite Prologue, and Irenaeus (A.D. 180) state that Mark wrote soon after Peter’s martyrdom (~A.D. 67) – a tradition that still allows for a date in the late 60s. Clement of Alexandria (A.D. 200) on the other hand, maintains that Mark wrote his Gospel before Peter’s death. Still another witness, Eusebius (A.D. 340), fixes a date for Mark during the reign of Emperor Claudius, between A.D. 41 and 54. Although these varying traditions make it impossible for use to assign an exact date for the Gospel, they together suggest that Mark published his work sometime before A.D. 70. Many modern scholars likewise place the composition of Mark just before A.D. 70, though some put it just after this critical date.

    Halfway there now.



    Sources are linked throughout. It should be made clear that the arguments in this post are not at all my own and are, as I have said, taken from the Ignatius Catholic Study Bible (New Testament) by Scott Hahn and Curtis Mitch.

  • He is Risen – 2.1: Matthew probably wrote Matthew

    Feb 2nd, 2025

    I’ve watched some videos doubting traditional authorship, some arguing for, and some arguing against. In my opinion, it is far more difficult to hold a sceptical position for the authorship of the Gospels. Many approaches that I have seen to doubt traditional authorship seem to posit an ad-hoc explanation in the form of some mysterious author that somehow wielded command over all of the early churches whilst going unnamed, but the arguments put in favour of such hypotheses do not line up with the data at hand. As I go through the case for traditional authorship for each of the synoptic gospels starting with Matthew, I hope this will become clear. Each ensuing post regarding authorship depends heavily on material from the ‘Ignatius Catholic Study Bible’, co-authored by Scott Hann and Curtis Mitch, since I think it does a very good job of summarizing the traditional position.

    Why Matthew probably wrote Matthew

    Christian tradition unanimously identifies the Apostle Matthew as the author of the first Gospel. Virtually all ancient manuscripts that preserve the title of the work give some form of the heading ‘according to Mathew’. The same consensus can be found in the Church Fathers who address the issue: St Irenaeus (A.D. 180), Origen (A.D. 250), St. John Chrysostom (A.D. 390) and multiple others. There are no traces of a rival tradition that have survived from Christian antiquity.

    Modern scholars are inclined to dispute the authorship due to the author very clearly relying on Mark for some passages. There is no dispute that Mark was written by a non-Apostle, and due to this, modern scholars presume that if Matthew were to write a gospel, he would likely write it according to his own memories as opposed to relying also on Mark’s gospel.

    This sort of reasoning can easily be reinterpreted, though. Matthew could have relied on Mark’s gospel if he was under the impression that it were reputedly based upon the teaching of Peter – and this is not an unreasonable position at all. Peter’s authority among the twelve does seem to be a recurring theme in the gospel of Matthew (10:2, 16:17-19, 17:24-27).

    Next, the idea that someone like Matthew wrote the gospel attributed to him does cohere very well with the textual data:

    1. The evangelist is clearly well-steeped in the biblical and religious traditions of Israel, making it probable that this individual was a Jewish believer in Jesus.
    2. The author demonstrates a bilingual competence in writing accurate Greek and translating quotations directly from the Hebrew OT
    3. It is probable also that he was either native to Palestine or was educated there, for Greek was widely known in Palestine and especially in Galilee. Hebrew itself was hardly known outside of Israel.
    4. Matthew’s Gospel also makes multiple references to currency, debts, business transactions, and other financial matters (17:24-27; 18:23-35; 20:1-6; 25:14-30; 26:25; 27:3-10).

    Taken together, these aspects suggest that the author was Jewish, knew Hebrew and Greek, was probably from Palestine, and had some interest in episodes and teachings of Jesus involving money. Matthew, a tax collector fits this description quite well, and therefore it is not at all unreasonable to hold that Matthew actually wrote his gospel.

    When Matthew probably wrote Matthew

    There is not a scholarly consensus regarding the date when Matthew was written. Most place its composition in the 80s, 90s or first century, while some prefer to date it to the 50s or 60s. A date in the middle of the first century seems more likely than a date near the end of the first century, for two main reasons:

    1. Matthew records two sayings that predict the fall of Jerusalem, one that refers to the burning of the city (22:7) and one that foretells the demolition of the temple (24:2). Both predictions were fulfilled when Jerusalem fell before the conquering Romans in the year 70. There is no indication in the Gospel that this catastrophe had yet occurred – even though Matthew makes it a point to stress how events of the past have a lasting significance for the Church in his day.
    2. Matthew refers to the Sadducees seven times, more frequently than the other gospels combined (twice). He makes it a point to underscore, not only their opposition to Jesus, but also the danger their teaching poses to disciples (3:7, 16:1, 6, 11-12, 22:23, 34). Assuming that Matthew wrote with an eye to the situation of his audience, it is reasonable to suppose that his readers were threatened by the persecution and propaganda of the Sadducees, whose opposition to Christianity is historically documented in the NT (Acts 4:1-3, 5:17-18, 23:6). Of course, a similar inference can be made regarding the Pharisees, who also appear frequently in Matthew and come up for even more severe criticism (23:1-36). But there is a difference between the two that impinges on the question of dating: whereas the Pharisees where locked in a struggle with the Church throughout the first century, the Sadducees were a factor to be reckoned with only in the decades between A.D. 30 and 70 – since they were entirely wiped out with the Roman conquest of Jerusalem. Hence, although it remains difficult to fix a precise date for Matthew, there is good reason to think that it was composed before the critical date of A.D. 70.

    One down, three to go.



    Sources are linked throughout. It should be made clear that the arguments in this post (and following posts regarding authorship) are not at all my own and are, as I have said, taken from the Ignatius Catholic Study Bible (New Testament) by Scott Hahn and Curtis Mitch.

  • He is Risen – 1: He was Crucified

    Jan 19th, 2025

    This will likely be the most important blog series I write. As you might have guessed, it’s going to be aimed at “proving” the Resurrection of Jesus. I use “proving” loosely because whether or not one is convinced of the arguments that I make in this series is going to depend on your metaphysical commitments.

    I intend to show that not only is it rational to believe in the resurrection, but given the historical evidence (along with some reasonable metaphysical commitments, which I will flesh out in a later series), that a true, bodily resurrection is the best (natural, or supernatural) explanation for the historical data that we have regarding the first century.

    For now, I ask that the reader entertain that God’s existence is at least possible. I think I have given at least decent reasons to entertain this claim in a previous blog post, alongside some reasoning I gave in my previous series. If the reader does not want to do this, then fine, in a later series, i’ll give much stronger ones but to be honest, this series itself is a form of argument.


    The first point to prove is that we can be historically certain that someone by the name of ‘Jesus’ existed around the first century AD, and that he was crucified. There are multiple good reasons as to which we can be certain of this, and part one will cover them.

    1. Corroborating Evidence

    Corroborating evidence is additional information or proof that supports and confirms the validity of an initial piece of evidence or claim.

    Significant sources include:

    1. Tacitus

    Tacitus has been coined the ‘greatest Roman historian’, by some sources. His works, such as his Annals highlight that there was a strong sentiment of hatred toward Christians, that he likely partook in. For example, 15.44 reads:

    “Nero fastened the guilt and inflicted the most exquisite tortures on a class hated for their abominations, called “Chrestians” by the populace. Christus, from whom the name had its origin, suffered the extreme penalty during the reign of Tiberius at the hands of one of our procurators”

    This passage tells us a few things:

    1. ‘Chrestus’ – Jesus, or at least someone fitting his description, existed.
    2. ‘Chrestus’ – Jesus, or at least someone fitting his description, suffered the ‘extreme penalty’ (crucifixion)
    3. Tacitus doesn’t have the highest opinion of ‘Chrestus’. He refers to the acts/works of Christians as ‘abominations’. Rather harsh, no? But this adds to his credibility – he’s an ‘adverse witness’ i.e., he’d have conceivably little to gain by lying about this stuff.
    4. Not really necessary for this topic, but the Christians had grown in population by Tacitus’ time to be reasonably noticeable by the populace.

    Some people object to Tacitus’ works. Some claim that these works are forgeries, but as stated, it doesn’t really make much sense to forge these. If these were forgeries by Christians (the rational type of thing to forge), it would make much more sense to paint Christ in a positive light.
    Others object that Tacitus’ use of ‘procurator’ for Pilate is problematic – stating that because Pilate’s official title was ‘prefect’ during his jurisdiction, that it doesn’t correspond well with the time period. However, this isn’t much of a problem since Josephus and Philo also use the term. Josephus uses the terms interchangeably, making it likely that the term had evolved by the time of Tacitus’ writing.
    A final objection comes from the reference to Christ (“Chrestus”), instead of ‘Jesus’, however, by the early second century – ‘Christ’ and ‘Jesus’ were interchangeable by both Christians and non-Christians. The followers of Jesus were first called Christians at some point in the middle of the previous century (as Acts 11:26), and that Paul is writing to congregations of Christians before and near to his death (AD. 50-60), this is not at all an unreasonable claim.

    1. Flavius Josephus

    Flavius Josephus, or ‘Josephus’ as mentioned in the previous section, was a Jewish politician, soldier, and historian. This alone adds some credibility, given that it is well known that, generally, the Jewish populace did not take well to Christians at all. His work, the Antiquities writes about the rule of the procurator Albinus, but he includes a section on the death of James, the brother of Jesus:

    “Festus was now dead, and Albinus was but upon the road; so he assembled the Sanhedrin of judges, and brought before them the brother of Jesus, who was called Christ, whose name was James, and some others, and when he had formed an accusation against them as breakers of the law, he delivered them to be stoned.”
    (Antiquities, 20. 9)

    This corroborates Tacitus’ writings, telling us that:

    1. Jesus, or at least someone fitting his description, existed.
    2. Jesus and Christ are interchangeable.
    3. Jesus had some popularity – to be used as a referent concerning someone else.

    Josephus has another, more controversial section that describes the actions of Jesus:

    “About this time there lived Jesus, a wise man, if indeed one ought to call him a man. For he was one who performed surprising deeds and was a teacher of such people as accept the truth gladly. He won over many Jews and many of the Greeks. He was the Christ. And when, upon the accusation of the principal men among us, Pilate had condemned him to a cross, those who had first come to love him did not cease. He appeared to them spending a third day restored to life, for the prophets of God had foretold these things and a thousand other marvels about him. And the tribe of the Christians, so called after him, has still to this day not disappeared.”
    (Antiquities 18.3.)

    It’s quite clear that some of this doesn’t really line up with first century Jewish sentiment about Christ, however, some scholars argue that much of this passage is authentic – as to which parts, well, that is debateable. Remember, all this section intends to do is show the historicity of the gospels, and the existence of Jesus.

    Sources of limited value include:

    1. Suetonius (AD 69 – 122, a Roman historian under Hadrian)
      1. Mentions Christians in his work ‘Lives of the Twelve Ceasars’
    2. Pliny the Younger (AD 61-113, Governor of Bithnyia)
      1. Writes about the practices of early Christians and their worship of Christ
    3. Lucian of Samosata (AD 125 – AD 180, a Greek satirist)
      1. Mocked the early Christians in his works – describing them as worshippers of a crucified sage
    4. Thallus (uncertain – likely mid-first century, an ancient historian)
      • An individual who wrote a ‘refutation’ of the ‘darkness experienced at Christ’s crucifixionThallus’ work is only known through other references like Julius Africanus
      • Interesting, why would there be any need to write a refutation of a fiction?
    5. Celsus (AD 170/late second-century, a second century Greek philosopher who wrote a comprehensive attack on Christianity)
    6. Mara bar Serapion (~AD 73 – ~200, a Syriac Stoic Philosopher, who speaks of Jesus as a “Jewish king” (a wise one))
    1. Criterion of Embarrassment

    Another line of evidence supporting the historical accuracy of the Gospels is the fact that the manner of writing does not inflate the egos of the writers, suggesting honesty. Here are some key examples:

    1. Peter’s Denial of Jesus
      • It is well known that Peter held a position of authority in the early Church – at least equal to or greater than that of the other apostles. However, Peter’s thrice-denial of Jesus is recorded in all three Gospels; Matthew 26:69-75, Mark 14:66-72, Luke 22:54-62. Quite obviously, there is very little to gain from such a prominent leader of the Christians admitting to his own cowardice when, if the intention were to deceive, such a detail could easily have been left out.
    2. The Disciples Misunderstanding and Ambition
      • In Mark 10:35-45, James and John ask to sit at Jesus’ left and right in his glory, showing their misunderstanding of his mission. The mother of James and John makes a similar request in Matthew 20:20-28.
    3. Jesus’ rebuking of Peter
      • In both Mark 8:33 and Matthew 16:23, Peter is rebuked by Jesus. In Mark, this is for Peter not having in mind the concerns of God, but merely human concerns, but the verse in Matthew is even more striking because it comes after Jesus addressing Peter and telling him that he is the rock upon which he would build his Church – such a sharp change in tone isn’t what one would expect from a fabrication.
    4. The Disciples’ Lack of Understanding
      • This is detailed multiple times in the gospels, specifically in Mark 9:32 and Luke 18:34. With the disciples acting as teachers for the rest of Jesus’ followers after he had gone, it can quite clearly be seen that it would have been more advantageous for them to have left this detail out – again, making it more probable that this detail is accurate.
    1. Dissimilarity

    As much as the synoptics are very similar in narrative, they also have their key differences. Mark reads much like a summary of Jesus’ actions, whilst Matthew is quite clearly intended to be written with a Jewish audience in mind. Luke, on the other hand, is intended (at least as the author says) to be an “’account of the things that have been fulfilled among us, like the accounts passed on to us by those who were eyewitnesses and servants of the word from the beginning. ‘” (Luke 1:1-2).

    Scholars commonly date Mark to be the earliest of the Gospels to be written – with around AD 70 being the most common date given to it (I will tackle the ~40-year gap “problem” later). Matthew and Luke are said to have been written within the next ten years or so. Much of these differences are explained through:

    1. Paraphrase: Matthew and Luke may have restated some phrases or occurrences using other words
    2. Abridgement: Some authors may have abbreviated some sections of memories, writing what they thought was more important in more detail
    3. Explanatory addition: Some writers may have decided to explain some things in more details than others
    4. Selection and Omission: some authors may have decided to omit details that were already common knowledge during the time – i.e., there may have been little use writing down what people already knew.

    Ultimately, these differences are expected provided that the authors are not colluding with each other to make up a story. After all, if four people are charged with committing a crime and in separate court sessions they all detail the same alibi word-for-word, bar-for-bar, quite a few eye-brows would be going up.

    1. Historical Fit

    The narratives of the Gospels fit well within the times during which they were written. With Pilate being named as the Procurator of the region, Jerusalem being under Roman occupation and multiple other details such as the frequencies of names such as Mary and John being just as frequent in the texts as would be expected for that population. Furthermore, multiple archaeological excavations have been made that have confirmed the accounts of the gospels – examples include the Pilate Inscription (an inscription confirming Pilate’s prefecthood over Judea) and the Pool of Bethesda, where Jesus is said to have healed a paralytic in Judea.

    1. Insufficient Time and Jewish Scribal Practice

    Another point, which responds to an objection, is that there was also insufficient time between the actual event of Jesus’ crucifixion and the writings of the Gospels for there to have been legendary development/corruption of the story. Historians generally suppose that it takes at the very least two-to-three generations for legendary material to embellish itself into a historical story – it often takes longer, even centuries. The Gospels were written around a generation after the fact, which may seem like much too late given our society, but this is not an issue for two main reasons.

    1. First Century Judea was a high-context culture:
      Jewish rabbis and scribes were known for being able to commit the whole to memory. It’s a remarkable detail, but it’s not completely surprising given the time, effort, and money it would take to write these scriptures down. Since this is the case, it’s not unreasonable to suppose that some of Jesus’ followers could do the same with the details of the Gospels and therefore maintain the oral ‘orthodoxy’ of the rest of Jesus’ followers until these things were written down. It should also be noted that the copying process was extremely meticulous, needing scribes to count every letter and word to preserve integrity. As Christianity was born out of such a culture, it is not unreasonable to suppose that similar practices and care would be devoted to taking care of Christian scriptures
    2. Relatively ‘Live’
      Relative to other works, the Gospels are written astoundingly close to the events in question. For example, writings of records of:
      • Alexander the Great, are written over four-hundred years after his death, yet historians judge them to be historically reliable.
      • Aristotle, is largely down to the biography written about him six-hundred years after his death by Diogenes Laërtius
      • Homer’s Iliad. These epic poems are believed to have been composed around the 8th Century BC, but they describe events from the Trojan War, which is thought to have occurred around the 12th Century BC.
    1. Immense amount of Manuscripts

    The final point to make is that the New Testament is effectively the most popular, and well-kept manuscript of antiquity. We currently hold about 5800+ Greek Manuscripts of the New Testament – a dozen of which have been dated to within 150 years of the originals, and the oldest, “P52” has been dated to within 10-60 years of the original. In comparison, of the nine ‘Lives of Plutarch’ only a few dozen Greek manuscripts have been found, and the earliest of these has been dated to the tenth or eleventh century, or roughly eight to nine hundred years after Plutarch wrote them.

    With regard to accuracy, well, that’s even more impressive. There are about 200,000 textual variants in the NT, but these represent only 10,000 places in the New Testament. If one word is misspelled in 3000 manuscripts, this is counted as 3000 variants. Further, according to biblicaltheology.com, “Norman Geisler stated that “Textual scholars Westcott and Hort estimated that only one in sixty of these variants has significance. This would leave a text 98.3% percent pure.” This means that out of the total number of variants within the New Testament, the text is 99% accurate and clean from any major doctrinal errors. In comparison to other ancient books, the New Testament is by far the most accurate. For instance, Bruce Metzger estimated, “that the Mahabharata of Hinduism is copied with only about 90% accuracy and Homer’s Iliad with about 95%” (Geisler, 1991, p533). By comparison he estimated the New Testament is about 99.5% accurate.”

    One could object – zooming in on the fact that only a dozen of the manuscripts have been dated to the early period, however, this is simply expected. The materials these manuscripts were made from (Papyrus and Parchment) are relatively fragile, but due to Middle Eastern climate, and careful handling, we are fortunate to have even found these copies in the first place.


    With all of this said, we have given good reason to be able to trust the reliability of the synoptic Gospels. We have seen that, when compared to contemporary texts, along with other texts from antiquity, that the Gospels stand head-and-shoulders above them in terms of preservation, and closeness to the events in question. We have also noted that there is good reason to believe that the Gospels are truthful accounts – at the very least in terms of the existence and actions of Jesus, and that he was almost certainly crucified. Next up – authorship!

    Thanks,

    Rookie


  • On the Origin of Man – 7: Noah’s Ark

    Dec 8th, 2024

    I thought it might be fitting to wrap up this series with a short post on Noah’s Ark. I think I’ve provided a faithful understanding of the Genesis story, and how well it coheres with what we know from the natural sciences, but it might be best to briefly give a less extravagant (yet still orthodox) understanding of Noah’s Ark – leaning heavily on work by John Walton and Andrew Loke. I’ll try to keep this post on the shorter side, since I’ve already dumped about 26000 words throughout the rest of this series.


    There are two things to show here:

    Thesis 1: A fair interpretation shows Ancient Near Eastern Hyperbole, but this does not contradict the Biblical Narrative

    Thesis 2: There is some form of historical evidence for a local flood

    Thesis 1: A fair interpretation shows Ancient Near Eastern Hyperbole, but this does not contradict the Biblical Narrative

    I think that the title of this section more or less says it all but, essentially, hyperbolic language was very common in Ancient Near Eastern writing. We find similar exaggerations elsewhere in the Bible. Similarly:

    • The Annals of Sennacherib (who was an Assyrian King), often exaggerated his military victories – claiming to have destroyed 89 cities and 820 villages in Judah (which was likely overstated)
    • The Behistun Inscription is a monumental inscription by Darius the Great of Persia, and it details his conquests and suppression of revolts (also exaggerating the number of enemies defeated)
    • The Mesha Stele was a Moabite stone inscription by King Mesha of Moab, and it describes his rebellion against Israel – again, exaggerating the number of enemies defeated

    Scholars know that the aforementioned are exaggerations through comparative analysis, archaeological evidence, corroborating sources, internal consistency and historical context, but the point to be made is that hyperbolic language is not foreign to Ancient Near Eastern literature. Of course the above are militaristic in nature but, plausibly, one could also see the Ark as a ‘war waged on the corruption of the Earth’.

    Therefore, when reading Biblical language, we should ask ourselves what motivations (if any) might the author of Genesis have had for illustrating the flood as such. I, John Walton and other Old Testament Scholars (I am not one, to be clear), think rhetoric.

    Quite clearly, the author of Genesis 6:5 intends to get across to the reader that (at the very least) the imago-Dei anatomical humans which (genetically), could have been all of remaining humanity by this point as I have argued in part 2. The point is to show that the world had been overwhelmed by Evil.

    The sort of thinking that the Ancient Near East is the entire world likely does carry on into the New Testament.
    For example, Acts 2:5 could be supposing that Jews come from ‘every nation under heaven’, and Paul claims in Colossians 1:23 that he is proclaiming the gospel that has been proclaimed to ‘every creature under heaven’. With similar language being used in Genesis 7:19 – “all the high mountains under the entire heavens were covered”, I think we have sufficient reason to believe that the author of the flood narrative is using hyperbolic language to convey a true event.

    Now, interpretatively speaking, we must note that such a position can still be maintained as an orthodox Christian. I am simply suggesting that the author intended more to convey a theological message rather than a historically-accurate one, and that such was the cultural norm of the day. Considering the author is writing in the period where hyperbolic language is normal for historical texts, along with numerology littered throughout, I don’t think this is an irrational position.

    Thesis 2: There is some form of historical evidence for a local flood

    It might come as a surprise to some, but multiple Ancient Near Eastern accounts detail flood stories of their own sort. One such example would be the Epic of Gilgamesh. John Currid, a scholar who has compared the two in his work ‘Against the Gods: The Polemical Theology of the Old Testament’, notes these similarities between the accounts:

    Epic of GilgameshGenesis
    Divine Warning of doom (lines 20-26)Divine warning of doom (6:12-13)
    Command to build ship (lines 24-31)Command to build ark (6:14-16)
    Hero constructs ship (lines 54-76)Noah builds ark (6:22)
    Utnapishtim loads ark, including his relations and animals (lines 80-85)Noah loads ark, including his family and animals (7:1-5)
    The gods send torrential rains (lines 90-128)Yahweh sends torrential rains (6:17; 7:1-12)
    The floods destroy humanity (line 133)The floods destroy humanity (7:21-22)
    The flood subsides (lines 129-132)The flood abates (8:1-3)
    The ship lands on Mount Nisir (lines 140-144)The ark settles on Mount Ararat (8:4)
    Utnapishtim sends forth birds (lines 146-154)Noah sends forth birds (8:6-12)
    Sacrifice to the gods (lines 155-161)Sacrifice to Yahweh (8:20-22)
    Deities bless hero (line 194)Yahweh blesses Noah (9:1)

    It’s quite clear that with how well the details parallel, along with the structure and flow, that such overwhelming similitude cannot be explained as a result of mere chance or simultaneous invention.

    One might suggest any of:

    1. The two sources copied one another
    2. The two used the same original source
    3. They are separate accounts of the same event

    (2) and (3) are quite plausible, and are not mutually exclusive. The Eridu Genesis is a Sumerian flood account that existed before either the Epic of Gilgamesh and the Genesis account. Since this is the case, this might provide evidence against (1).

    Furthermore, it should be noted that the story of the Biblical flood is still markedly different in some respects from some of its contemporary counterparts. For example, the other sources tend to be more polytheistic (which is the case in Eridu Genesis), and the flood story of the Epic of Atrahasis gives the justification for the flood being something as silly as disturbing the sleep of the gods. This is a drastically different picture to the much more strictly monotheistic Genesis story, which quite directly points the blame at man’s corruption.

    In terms of candidates, considering that my model is quite relaxed when it comes to affirming (temporally) exactly when the Patriarchs of Genesis emerge, I don’t really think it’s necessary to propose an exact date, but there are some potential candidates that some archaeologists have discovered, such as the:

    1. Flood at Ur: Archaeological excavations at the ancient city of Ur, led by Sir Leonard Woolley in the 1920s, uncovered a significant flood layer. This flood is believed to have occurred around 2900 BCE.
    2. Flood at Shuruppak: Excavations at Shuruppak, another ancient Mesopotamian city, revealed evidence of a major flood around the same period. Shuruppak is particularly interesting because it is associated with the Sumerian flood hero Ziusudra, who parallels Noah in many ways.
    3. Flood at Kish: Similar flood deposits were found at Kish, dating to around 2900 BCE. These findings suggest that a large flood affected multiple cities in the region.

    I have already affirmed in the previous section that the authors need not be talking about all anatomical humans, and considering the hyperbolic language used, possibly not even all imago-Dei humans). Therefore, I think I can hold to this being a historical event, simply on the reasons already given.


    This has been a monumental project, that I’ve really enjoyed working on over three-or-four months. I think it’s been really helpful to give a (hopefully) strong and coherent understanding of the start of the Genesis story and show that it doesn’t conflict with modern findings. There was one topic that I thought about including in this section (the Nephilim) but I don’t think there’s much need, considering that my interpretations doesn’t lead to any theological issues ensuing from that topic. Further, its such an obviously unsettled issue that it didn’t make much sense to say much about a topic that would take months to research.

    I hope this has been useful for anyone – whether you’re curious about the faith, wanting to learn about it, or just genuinely stumbled here by accident – let me know what you think below!

    Thanks,
    Rookie

    P.S: I think the next series is going to be even longer but i’ll be taking a short break, so expect the next post in about 6 weeks! 😊



    Sources:

    • The Lost World of the Flood – John Walton
    • Evidence that Demands a Verdict – Josh and Sean McDowell
  • On the Origin of Man – 6: Faith and God’s Works

    Nov 17th, 2024

    The second-last part of this series will be delving into what I like to call ‘science’s debt’. Some Christians nowadays are wary of ‘science’, because it’s often weaponized by ill-informed Atheists as something that is allegedly contrary to faith. Part of this stems from works reaching back to the late 19th Century by John William Draper and Andrew Dickson White. Draper argued that there had been a long-standing conflict between the human intellect and traditional religious beliefs. White argued that such “warfare” had been a significant factor in the development of modern science – but this theory is rejected by historians of science, and at the very least, with regard to Christianity, such claims turn out to be weak – and that’s what I’ll show in this blog post.


    There are three main topics to cover in this post:

    1. Science’s cloudy definition
    2. Speedrunning Irrationality – Lesson 1: Scientism and Verificationism
    3. The Modern Scientific Method’s debt

    #1: Science’s cloudy definition

    It would surprise most people to know that Historians and Philosophers of Science are not at all ‘clear’ on one unified, agreed-upon definition of what exactly ‘science’ is, or what really constitutes ‘scientific’. To most people, we would simply list the natural and social sciences as ‘sciences’, or ‘scientific’, but that doesn’t actually answer the question. What we are asking is ‘what makes something science?’ rather than ‘what are some examples of science?’. Examples are not definitions.

    More formally, the problem stated is what is known as the ‘demarcation problem’ – the problem of “defining science and distinguishing or demarcating it from pseudo-science, metaphysics, history, religion, or other forms of thought or inquiry.”1

    Typically, philosophers of science have tried to do this by studying the methods that scientists use to study nature – but that’s exactly where the trouble began. The problem was that ‘scientists’ in different fields use different methods – which is also why historians and philosophers of science tend to be more equipped to attempt to answer this question, given that they tend to have a more ‘big picture’ view of the field of inquiry.

    Some sciences perform laboratory experiments, some name, organize and classify natural objects, some seek to discover natural laws, some attempt to reconstruct past events, some construct models – the list goes on.

    There are a couple of stock objections to the idea that any theory of Intelligent Design could ever be scientific, so it would do to answer some stock objections:

    1. God violates the laws of nature!
      1. How so, which laws specifically, and how exactly do we know that he violated such laws? It’s well known that the laws we know of now didn’t really exist momentarily after the big bang, so what’s the issue if God did (and I’m not saying that he did) tweak them?
    2. God is an unobservable entity!
      1. Evolution itself requires unobservable intermediary forms of life. These forms are ‘postulated’
      2. The Higgs-boson particle in the Large Hadron Collider cannot be directly observed because it is highly unstable and decays almost immediately. Scientists detect the particles resulting from its decay and use these traces to confirm the presence of the Higgs Boson particle.
    3. It’s not testable or predictable!
      1. I’ll have a little to say about testability in the next section, but it should be known, as I have said throughout, that I am taking an abductive (best-theory-given-the-data) approach. Specifically, when talking about the origin of the first organism, Intelligent Design doesn’t actually claim supernatural or law-breaking actions (as stated with the hyper-intelligent alien hypothesis)
      2. As a matter of fact, the theory has predictive consequences about how life may look like, and the causal powers of physical or material mechanisms

    Lastly, the reason I raise this point is to speak directly to those who claim that a design theory isn’t ‘scientific’. You’re free to make that claim, of course, but you also would need an agreed-upon, formal definition of ‘science’ (which you do not have) to make the claim actually sting. Of course, I would also need to have such definition myself if I were to claim that such theory was scientific, but I’m not necessarily bothered about doing that, because even if such theory weren’t scientific…

    #2: Speedrunning Irrationality – Lesson 1: Scientism and Verificationism

    Anyone that’s at least moderately involved in these sorts of topics has probably heard the atheist say something along the lines of “Science is the only way to truth” or “Scientific knowledge is the only important form of knowledge”. Both ideas essentially come from what is known as verificationism, which is the proposition that “a statement is only meaningful if it is either analytic or empirically verifiable”.

    A quick run-down is in order:

    • Analytic statements are true by definition, because their truth is determined solely by the definitions of the words involved. For example, “humans are rational creatures” is an analytic statement, because it is part of the nature, or ‘essence’, of humans to be rational.
    • Synthetic statements are statements that are true depending on the state of the world – for example, “the cat is on the mat” is a synthetic statement – its truth value depends on the state of the world around you.
      • Empirically verifiable statements are subsets of synthetic statements – they are amenable to empirical verification (i.e., they can be tested and proven to be true)

    You might have spotted a glaring issue with verificationism by now – i.e., it’s neither an analytic or empirically verifiable statement. This means that it is self-refuting – i.e., it does not meet it’s own standard, or it undermines itself.

    But how bad can it get? The answer is pretty bad, because verificationism entails a scientistic (i.e., scientific knowledge is the only meaningful knowledge) take on reality. Take for example, the following argument2:

    1. The predictive power and technological applications of science are unparalleled by those of any other purported source of knowledge.
    2. Therefore what science reveals to us is probably all that is real.

    Let’s rephrase it a little:

    1. Metal detectors have had far greater success in finding coins and other metallic objects in more places than any other method has.
    2. Therefore what metal detectors reveal to us (coins and other metallic objects) is probably all that is real.

    It should be pretty clear the level of absurdity verificationist/scientistic thinking leads to, and a few examples of things the metal detector misses out are listed:

    1. Statements about the past and future (especially historical methods of research)
    2. Private, subjective, first person mental states, which scientific statements themselves are dependent on
    3. Laws of nature and therefore mathematical axioms (science, or at the very least physics for example, presupposes these)
    4. Metaphysical questions (especially ones telling us how to do science – the answer to the question “Why should I prefer the simplest explanation?” is a philosophical question, not scientific one)
    5. Ethical questions, and other questions pertaining to moral responsibility.
    6. Theological questions

    What this means is that science cannot, even in principle, give you a complete description of reality. This is perfectly fine, because science was never supposed to do that in the first place.

    #3: The Modern Scientific Method’s debt

    Much of what I say here will be drawn from a dime of a video made about a year and a half ago by David Wood, but I’ll throw in some extra stuff as well. If you’re feeling lazy and don’t want to read, then I recommend you check it out.

    The pioneers of the Scientific Revolution, which took place during the 16th century to the 17th century were all Christians – but why? Why did the scientific revolution ‘spring forth’ from the Christian society, and why would it be very difficult for it to have come from an atheist society?

    Names such as Nicolaus Copernicus, Galileo Galilei, Johannes Kepler and Isaac Newton are quite famous today, but it’s not very common knowledge that all of these scientists were Christians.

    An English philosopher and scientist, Francis Bacon, who was also Christian, might give us a clue as to the reasoning for this common denominator. He writes:

    “Man by the fall fell at the same time from his state of innocence and from his dominion over nature. Both of these losses, however, can even in this life be in some part repaired; the former by religion and faith, the latter by arts and sciences”

    More examples are in order. It was Johannes Kepler that said:

    “I was merely thinking God’s thoughts after Him. Since we astronomers are priests of the highest God in regard to the book of nature, it benefits us to be thoughtful, not of the glory of our minds, but rather, above all else, of the glory of God.”

    He saw divine order in the mathematical precision that described planetary motion, and the three laws he discovered that described that motion.

    Most foremost, Isaac Newton argued thoroughly for design based on his discoveries in physics, biology and astronomy. He argued for the intelligent design of the eye in his work ‘Opticks’ and argued for design elsewhere in his work – the Mathematical Principles of Natural Philosophy (the principia), where he attributes the initial positioning of celestial bodies to the work of a designer.

    Now we’ve got a clue – science was seen to be a religious activity. Scientists during this period believed three, Judeo-Christian, things:

    1. There is a reasonable God
    2. Who created a reasonable universe
    3. Man, by use of his reason, could find out the Universe’s form

    As a matter of fact, this kind of teleological thinking is even evident in the Bible. Romans 1:20, reads:

    “For since the creation of the world his invisible attributes—his eternal power and divine nature—have been clearly seen, because they are understood through what has been made. So people are without excuse.”

    Now the answers to the questions “Why didn’t modern science develop in China?” or “Why did modern science develop at the time it did (~17th Century, not the ~15th Century)?” seem to have clearer answers. The notion that the universe is intelligible is a fundamentally religious idea – early scientists believed that a reasonable creator used mathematical principles to design it. They also believed that the pursuit of truth was ‘redemptive’ (i.e., good). For example, learning for the sake of learning is religious, as science was seen as a form of worship. For example, Copernicus’ groundbreaking work ‘On the Revolutions of the Heavenly Spheres’ was dedicated to Pope Paul III, and in its preface he says:

    “For who could set this luminary in this most beautiful temple and not admire the work of the Creator?”

    It was around this time that marked the beginning of the scientific revolution. The Bible was seen as the book of God’s words, and the world (as shown by the passage of Romans 1:20 above) was seen as the book of God’s works. After the invention of the printing press in 1440, information travelled around much faster and literacy rates skyrocketed. The mass production of books meant that ideas were easier to share and created a period of inquiry and debate, which was instrumental to fostering an intellectual environment, which had matured well by the time of the scientific revolution in the next two centuries.

    Years before this, in monasteries, monastic scholars Christians increased their understanding of the Bible by:

    1. Hypothesizing
    2. Testing that Hypothesis
    3. Modifying that Hypothesis (as necessary)

    These heavily influenced the methods of learning at institutions such as Oxford and Cambridge in the 12th and 13th centuries, which grew out of such monasteries, and by the 17th century, such method had become a standard method of scientific inquiry.

    In fact, regarding Galileo’s ideas, the theologian Cardinal Bellarmine himself had made the following statement in 1615 in a public letter to Paolo Foscarini, a Carmelite friar who was a defender of Copernican ideas:

    “If there were a true demonstration that . . . the sun does not circle the earth but the earth circles the sun, then one would have to proceed with great care in explaining the Scriptures that appear contrary, and say rather that we do not understand them than that what is demonstrated is false.”

    He makes the point that it is not necessarily the case that the Bible is wrong, but just its interpretation.

    Now, what of the naturalist that says “but surely science could have come to be from an Atheistic society?”

    Most certainly not.

    The Modern Scientific Method (testing hypotheses) presupposes that the world has an intelligible order, and the laws of Nature are put in place by a divine creator. If Naturalism were true, would you  ever go searching for equations that you have no reason to even think are there? If Mathematics is a language that describes the world around us and makes it intelligible, then doesn’t it make sense to say that we are surrounded by words?

    In essence, there are three things you need to believe to get Science off the ground:

    1. The Universe can be understood
    2. We are the sorts of things can understand it
    3. It is good to understand it

    Supposing Christian theism, all three of these premises are expected, but supposing naturalism, shouldn’t survival and reproduction be our one and only goal? After all, it was Darwin who said:

    “But then with me the horrid doubt always arises whether the convictions of man’s mind, which has been developed from the mind of the lower animals, are of any value or at all trustworthy. Would any one trust in the convictions of a monkey’s mind, if there are any convictions in such a mind?”

    I don’t think a conclusion is necessary this time 🙂



    Sources:

    1. Chapter 19 – Signature in the Cell, Stephen C. Meyer
    2. 0. Prologmena – Scholastic Metaphysics, a Contemporary Introduction – Ed Feser
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